National Eligibility Test (NET) or the NTA UGC NET in Library and Information Science, is also an exam for determining the eligibility of Indian nationals for the eligibility for Assistant Professor only or Junior Research Fellowship & Eligibility for Assistant Professor both in Library and Information Science in Indian universities and colleges. It is also a desired qualification for appointment of the post of librarian in libraries of universities, colleges, and government institutions in India. It has a comprehensive syllabus covering all the areas of Library and Information Science. In this article is given Solved Question Papers of NTA UGC NET exam in Library and Information Science in India. Even if you are from a country other than India, study of these solved UGC NET examination questions and answers will improve your knowledge and understanding of Library and Information Science.
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1. The teacher has been glorified by the phrase "Friend, philosopher and guide" because:
(A) He has to play all vital roles in the context of society
(B) He transmits the high value of humanity to students
(C) He is the great reformer of the society
(D) He is a great patriot
Answer: (B)
2. The most important cause of failure for teacher lies in the area of:
(A) inter personal relationship
(B) lack of command over the knowledge of the subject
(C) verbal ability
(D) strict handling of the students
Answer: (B)
3. A teacher can establish rapport with his students by:
(A) becoming a figure of authority
(B) impressing students with knowledge and skill
(C) playing the role of a guide
(D) becoming a friend to the students
Answer: (B)
4. Education is a powerful instrument of:
(A) Social transformation
(B) Personal transformation
(C) Cultural transformation
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
5. A teacher's major contribution towards the maximum self-realization of the student is affected through:
(A) Constant fulfillment of the students' needs
(B) Strict control of classroom activities
(C) Sensitivity to students' needs, goals, and purposes
(D) Strict reinforcement of academic standards
Answer: (C)
6. Research problem is selected from the standpoint of:
(A) Researcher's interest
(B) Financial support
(C) Social relevance
(D) Availability of relevant literature
Answer: (C)
7. Which one is called non-probability sampling?
(A) Cluster sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Systematic sampling
(D) Stratified random sampling
Answer: (B)
8. Formulation of hypothesis may NOT be required in:
(A) Survey method
(B) Historical studies
(C) Experimental studies
(D) Normative studies
Answer: (B)
9. Field-work based research is classified as:
(A) Empirical
(B) Historical
(C) Experimental
(D) Biographical
Answer: (A)
10. Which of the following sampling method is appropriate to study the prevalence of AIDS amongst males and females in India in 1976, 1986, 1996, and 2006?
(A) Cluster sampling
(B) Systematic sampling
(C) Quota sampling
(D) Stratified random sampling
Answer: (B)
Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:
The fundamental principle is that Article 14 forbids class legislation but permits reasonable classification for the purpose of legislation which classification must satisfy the twin tests of classification being founded on an intelligible differentia which distinguishes persons or things that are grouped together from those that are left out of the group and that differentia must have a rational nexus to the object sought to be achieved by the Statute in question. The thrust of Article 14 is that the citizen is entitled to equality before law and equal protection of laws. In the very nature of things the society being composed of unequals a welfare State will have to strive by both executive and legislative action to help the less fortunate in society to ameliorate their condition so that the social and economic inequality in the society may be bridged. This would necessitate a legislative application to a group of citizens otherwise unequal and amelioration of whose lot is the object of state affirmative action. In the absence of the doctrine of classification such legislation is likely to flounder on the bed rock of equality enshrined in Article 14. The Court realistically appraising the social and economic inequality and keeping in view the guidelines on which the State action must move as constitutionally laid down in Part IV of the Constitution evolved the doctrine of classification. The doctrine was evolved to sustain a legislation or State action designed to help weaker sections of the society or some such segments of the society in need of succour. Legislative and executive action may accordingly be sustained if it satisfies the twin tests of reasonable classification and the rational principle correlated to the object sought to be achieved.
The concept of equality before the law does not involve the idea of absolute equality among human beings which is a physical impossibility. All that Article 14 guarantees is a similarity of treatment contra-distinguished from identical treatment. Equality before law means that among equals the law should be equal and should be equally administered and that the likes should be treated alike. Equality before the law does not mean that things which are different shall be as though they are the same. It of course means denial of any special privilege by reason of birth, creed or the like. The legislation as well as the executive government, while dealing with diverse problems arising out of an infinite variety of human relations must of necessity have the power of making special laws, to attain any particular object and to achieve that object it must have the power of selection or classification of persons and things upon which such laws are to operate.
11. Right to equality, one of the fundamental rights, is enunciated in the constitution under Part III, Article:
(A)12
(B) 13
(C) 14
(D) 15
Answer: (C)
12. The main thrust of Right to equality is that it permits:
(A) class legislation
(B) equality before law and equal protection under the law
(C) absolute equality
(D) special privilege by reason of birth
Answer: (B)
13. The social and economic inequality in the society can be bridged by:
(A) executive and legislative action
(B) universal suffrage
(C) identical treatment
(D) none of the above
Answer: (A)
14. The doctrine of classification is evolved to:
(A) Help weaker sections of the society
(B) Provide absolute equality
(C) Provide identical treatment
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
15. While dealing with diverse problems arising out of an infinite variety of human relations, the government
(A) must have the power of making special laws
(B) must not have any power to make special laws
(C) must have power to withdraw equal rights
(D) none of the above
Answer: (A)
16. Communication with oneself is known as:
(A) Group communication
(B) Grapevine communication
(C) Interpersonal communication
(D) Intrapersonal communication
Answer: (D)
17. Which broadcasting system for TV is followed in India?
(A) NTSE
(B) PAL
(C) SECAM
(D) NTCS
Answer: (B)
18. All India Radio before 1936 was known as:
(A) Indian Radio Broadcasting
(B) Broadcasting Service of India
(C) Indian Broadcasting Service
(D) All India Broadcasting Service
Answer: (C)
19. The biggest news agency of India is:
(A) PTI
(B) UNI
(C) NANAP
(D) Samachar Bharati
Answer: (A)
20. Prasar Bharati was launched in the year:
(A) 1995
(B) 1997
(C) 1999
(D) 2001
Answer: (B)
21. A statistical measure based upon the entire population is called parameter while measure based upon a sample is known as:
(A) Sample parameter
(B) Inference
(C) Statistics
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
22. The importance of the correlation co-efficient lies in the fact that:
(A) There is a linear relationship between the correlated variables.
(B) It is one of the most valid measure of statistics.
(C) It allows one to determine the degree or strength of the association between two variables.
(D) It is a non-parametric method of statistical analysis.
Answer: (C)
23. The F-test:
(A) is essentially a two tailed test.
(B) is essentially a one tailed test.
(C) can be one tailed as well as two tailed depending on the hypothesis.
(D) can never be a one tailed test.
Answer: (C)
24. What will be the next letter in the following series?
DCXW, FGVU, HGTS
(A) AKPO
(B) JBYZ
(C) JIRQ
(D) LMRS
Answer: (C)
25. The following question is based on the diagram given below. If the two small circles represent formal class-room education and distance education and the big circle stands for university system of education, which figure represents the university systems?
Answer: (B)
26. The statement, 'To be non-violent is good' is a:
(A) Moral judgment
(B) Factual judgment
(C) Religious judgment
(D) Value judgment
Answer: (A)
27. Assertion (A): Man is a rational being.
Reason (R): Man is a social being.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer: (B)
28. Value Judgements are:
(A) Factual Judgements
(B) Ordinary Judgements
(C) Normative Judgements
(D) Expression of public opinion
Answer: (C)
29. Deductive reasoning proceeds from:
(A) general to particular
(B) particular to general
(C) one general conclusion to another general conclusion
(D) one particular conclusion to another particular conclusion
Answer: (A)
30. AGARTALA is written in code as 14168171, the code for AGRA is:
(A) 1641
(B) 1416
(C) 1441
(D) 1461
Answer: (D)
31. Which one of the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?
(A) National Family Health Surveys
(B) National Sample Surveys
(C) Census
(D) Demographic Health Surveys
Answer: (C)
32. Which one of the following principles is not applicable to sampling?
(A) Sample units must be clearly defined
(B) Sample units must be dependent on each other
(C) Same units of sample should be used throughout the study
(D) Sample units must be chosen in a systematic and objective manner
Answer: (B)
33. If January 1st, 2007 is Monday, what was the day on 1st January 1995?
(A) Sunday
(B) Monday
(C) Friday
(D) Saturday
Answer: (A)
34. Insert the missing number in the following series:
4 16 8 64 ? 256
(A) 16
(B) 24
(C) 32
(D) 20
Answer: (A)
35. If an article is sold for Rs. 178 at a loss of 11%; what would be its selling price in order to earn a profit of 11%?
(A) Rs. 222.50
(B) Rs. 267
(C) Rs. 222
(D) Rs. 220
Answer: (C)
36. WYSIWYG - describes the display of a document on screen as it will actually print:
(A) What you state is what you get
(B) What you see is what you get
(C) What you save is what you get
(D) What you suggest is what you get
Answer: (B)
37. Which of the following is not a Computer language?
(A) PASCAL
(B) UNIX
(C) FORTRAN
(D COBOL
Answer: (B)
38. A key-board has at least:
(A) 91 keys
(B) 101 keys
(C) 111 keys
(D) 121 keys
Answer: (B)
39. An E-mail address is composed of:
(A) two parts
(B) three parts
(C) four parts
(D) five parts
Answer: (A)
40. Corel Draw is a popular:
(A) Illustration programme
(C) Text programme
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
41. Human ear is most sensitive to noise in which of the following ranges:
(A) l-2 KHz
(B) 100-500 Hz
(C) 10-12 KHz
(D) 13-16 KHz
Answer: (Wrong question)
42. Which one of the following units is used to measure the intensity of noise?
(A) decibel
(B) Hz
(C) Phon
(D) Watts/m2
Answer: (A)
43. If the population growth follows a logistic curve, the maximum sustainable yield:
(A) is equal to half the carrying capacity.
(B) is equal to the carrying capacity.
(C) depends on growth rates.
(D) depends on the initial population.
Answer: (A)
44. Chemical weathering of rocks is largely dependent upon:
(A) high temperature
(B) strong wind action
(C) heavy rainfall
(D) glaciation
Answer: (C)
45. Structure of earth's system consists of the following:
Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer.
List-I (Zone)
(a) Atmosphere
(b) Biosphere
(c) Hydrosphere
(d) Lithosphere
List-II (Chemical Character)
(i) Inert gases
(ii) Salt, freshwater, snow, and ice
(iii) Organic substances, skeleton matter
(iv) Light silicates
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Answer: (B)
46. NAAC is an autonomous institution under the aegis of:
(A) ICSSR
(B) CSIR
(C) AICTE
(D) UGC
Answer: (D)
47. National Council for Women's Education was established in:
(A) 1958
(B) 1976
(C) 1989
(D) 2000
Answer: (A)
48. Which one of the following is not situated in New Delhi?
(A) Indian Council of Cultural Relations
(B) Indian Council of Scientific Research
(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training
(D) Indian Institute of Advanced Studies
Answer: (D)
49. Autonomy in higher education implies freedom in:
(A) Administration
(B) Policy-making
(C) Finance
(D) Curriculum development
Answer: (D)
50. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Institutions)
(a) Dr. Hari Singh Gour University
(b) S.N.D.T. University
(c) M.S. University
(d) J.N. Vyas University
List-II (Locations)
(i) Mumbai
(ii) Baroda
(iii) Jodhpur
(iv) Sagar
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (i) (ii) (vi) (iv)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Answer: (A)
